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Brian, I'm not sure that was ever right in the 80's, 90's or NoughtiesFrom where the offence occurred. It's not an offence to be in an offside position so it can't be where he was when it was played to him.


This was my next question. I was watching the scottish junior final and the referee gave the IDFK from the original position in the opponents half, rather than in his own half where he technically committed the offence.So if a player is in an offside position but commit the offense in his own half, the idfk for offside is in his own half?
From where the offence occurred. It's not an offence to be in an offside position so it can't be where he was when it was played to him.
Law 11, Interpretation and Guidelines, Pg 109 (pdf)Infringements
When an offside offence occurs, the referee awards an indirect free kick to be taken from the position of the offending player when the ball was last played to him by one of his team-mates.
That's quite reasonable and consistent with my experiences and observations.From where my AR is stood
From where my AR is stood... Easy way out and all that #RefereeToExpectations
(Awaits recoil from the usual few)
Callum, whilst that would indeed seem to be the intuitive thing to do, regrettably it is completely wrong in law. As others have pointed out, your way could lead to the farcical situation of a free kick being given for offside in the offending player's half ...I have it taken from where the player becomes active... Not where he was when the ball was played

It's the AR's job to stand where the offence occurredPrecisely...but it's the AR's job to be standing in line with where the offside player was when the ball was played to him. (Also, lucky you having ARs).
Including in the offending player's own half if that's where he touches the ball ?!? Brian, I've seen you be brilliantly right countless times on this forum. In this thread, IMO, you're just plain wrong ...It's the AR's job to stand where the offence occurred
@Russell Jones I have said it's where the offence occurs. I have never said that should be in his own half.Including in the offending player's own half if that's where he touches the ball ?!? Brian, I've seen you be brilliantly right countless times on this forum. In this thread, IMO, you're just plain wrong ...
@Russell Jones The player becoming active is what triggers the moment in time when he commits the offence.Callum, whilst that would indeed seem to be the intuitive thing to do, regrettably it is completely wrong in law. As others have pointed out, your way could lead to the farcical situation of a free kick being given for offside in the offending player's half ...![]()
Yes I am... please see my further comments below. Thanks for your thoughtsPlease tell me you aren't actually an assessor/tutor! The indirect free kick for an offside offence is taken from where the offending players was when the ball was last played to him by his team-mate.
In that situation you go back to where he became active, which is where he turns back into his own half to play the ball ... but this would still be in the opponents halfSo if a player is in an offside position but commit the offense in his own half, the idfk for offside is in his own half?
Correct, see my post aboveThis was my next question. I was watching the scottish junior final and the referee gave the IDFK from the original position in the opponents half, rather than in his own half where he technically committed the offence.