RefSix

World Cup New laws applied incorrectly?

zarathustra

RefChat Addict
#4
Unlucky, things like this are going to happen when new laws are introduced, although you would expect FIFA referees to be more aware of the changes in the laws.
 

markref

Active Member
#5
It was weird seeing a goal kick played across the PA, received inside the area and not retaken. It’s going to be weird not having to tell them “I know it’s not a goal kick, but it’s still got to go out of the area!”
 

Yampy

RefChat Addict
#7
Hasn’t there been a change of possession? And therefore would require a drop ball?
I suppose we'll argue the toss about possession for the next 9 months but in this case it looks to me as though no one had possession because France had already lost it through the miscontrol/dummy.
However, for me that's irrelevant as after the ball hit the referee, South Korea were able to start a promising attack thus, I feel a dropped ball should have been the correct call.
(I'd like to have seen South Korea score from that attack and see what VAR would have done.)
 

alexgr

RefChat Addict
#12
I suppose we'll argue the toss about possession for the next 9 months but in this case it looks to me as though no one had possession because France had already lost it through the miscontrol/dummy.
However, for me that's irrelevant as after the ball hit the referee, South Korea were able to start a promising attack thus, I feel a dropped ball should have been the correct call.
(I'd like to have seen South Korea score from that attack and see what VAR would have done.)
Well, I was thinking France passed the ball, hits the ref, goes to South Korea. That to me, irrespective of what happens in between, is a change of possession as no-one else has touched it? Just my thoughts
 
#13
Well, I was thinking France passed the ball, hits the ref, goes to South Korea. That to me, irrespective of what happens in between, is a change of possession as no-one else has touched it? Just my thoughts
Is it that simple? If the ball want going to a French player? I think real world implementation of this is harder than the common sense concept behind it. (And it takes us as Refs breaking ingrained habits.) I suspect with time refs are going to start to default to a DB instead of continuing except where it is clear it had no impact.
 

Yampy

RefChat Addict
#15
I don't see any reason to over-analyse this situation, go off whoever last touched the ball.
But that isn't what the law says. The new clause for "The ball is out of play when" states:

it touches a match official, remains on the field of play and:

"a team starts a promising attack or

the ball goes directly into the goal or

the team in possession of the ball changes

In all these cases, play is restarted with a dropped ball."

It makes no mention of the last team to touch the ball.

Consider a Red team has a corner which is taken, outswinging to a Red player on the edge of the D. Red volleys the ball to goal and it strikes a Blue defender legimately but the rebound hits the referee. Assuming no goal is scored after it hits the referee or the Blue team does not start a promising attack, who's in possession? Did it change?
 

QuaverRef

I used to be indecisive but now i'm not so sure
#16
I don't see any reason to over-analyse this situation, go off whoever last touched the ball.
Is that technically possession though?

If a player tries to kick the ball upfield, it takes a slight nick off a defender, hits the referee and lands back at the player who initially kicked the ball, are we then awarding a drop ball?
 

zarathustra

RefChat Addict
#17
But that isn't what the law says. The new clause for "The ball is out of play when" states:

it touches a match official, remains on the field of play and:

"a team starts a promising attack or

the ball goes directly into the goal or

the team in possession of the ball changes

In all these cases, play is restarted with a dropped ball."

It makes no mention of the last team to touch the ball.

Consider a Red team has a corner which is taken, outswinging to a Red player on the edge of the D. Red volleys the ball to goal and it strikes a Blue defender legimately but the rebound hits the referee. Assuming no goal is scored after it hits the referee or the Blue team does not start a promising attack, who's in possession? Did it change?
In that instance I would say play on.

Neither team had possession, it didn't go in the goal and no one started a promising attack.

If the ball had hit the referee directly from the corner (or an deliberate play i.e. a pass) and then fell to the blue team I would say that is a change in possession.
 
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