A&H

Spurs V Leeds

L

ladbroke8745

RefChat Addict
Right at the end of the game....

Spurs player fouled.
Ref slows, acknowledges and waves advantage as ball is going into final third and then player is adjudged offside.
The player who fouled gets cautioned but a foul is not awarded, the offside is. Surely no advantage was gained or likely to ever be gained with the receiver of the ball (from the foul) was surrounded. It was no "clear" advantage and nothing was gained. Leeds actually benefited from the foul as it stopped Spurs attack and got the free kick themselves in the form of an offside.

I'm confused.
 
A&H International
From what is described is only possible way to have OS + caution is if the foul was reckless rather than SPAA and R determined the advantage had already ensued but was then wasted by passing the ball to the OS player. (I haven5 seen the play in question, so I have no I did if that was plausibl.
 
Correct. It was a relatively clear reckless tackle. I actually think it was good refereeing. Reckless tackle happens. Ref delays a moment. Ball goes to a Spurs player with clear control, if he passed on his first or second touch it's a goal. At that moment advantage has ensued and the ref should signal it and he does. Waiting longer means giving attackers more chances the deserved to rebalance. The player with the ball now makes a poor decision taking three touches which creates the offside. The player stuffs up a good opportunity and this is not the referee's fault. The offside should and did stand. He should have gone for the reckless tackle caution which he did.

The only thing the ref could have don't better was signalling. He dropped the advantage signal and signalled it again. He should have held it longer.
 
There was no advantage. The advantage was a poor decision at this level and the advantage signaling was poor for this level. IMHO of course.
 
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