A&H

Wind assisted back-pass

steakbridie

New Member
Not as windy as Arbroath further up the coast, but still enough to cause the GK to catch the ball after being kicked to him - good decision by the ref.

However, shouldn't the position of the IDFK be where it was caught - ie the goal area line, rather than near the edge of the penalty area?

 
The Referee Store
Correct decision and yes you're right that the FK should have been taken about 5 yards from goal were the ball was originally caught.
 
Correct decision and yes you're right that the FK should have been taken about 5 yards from goal were the ball was originally caught.
Amazing incident
The IFK would be on the edge of the goal area (6 yard box) on the line parallel to the goal line
Not 5 yards out ;)
 
Why wouldn't the ref consider these conditions as farcical? If the keeper can't clear the ball out of his own 18 yard box than you've got an issue
 
Why wouldn't the ref consider these conditions as farcical? If the keeper can't clear the ball out of his own 18 yard box than you've got an issue
As a one off incident it is farcical but may have been an isolated case. BBC Scotland showed limited highlights of this game and while it was windy there didn't seem to be anything else similar to this incident.
 
Why wouldn't the ref consider these conditions as farcical? If the keeper can't clear the ball out of his own 18 yard box than you've got an issue
I think it was more to do with the fact that the kick was sliced - there was an angle behind the goal on Sportscene that showed it more clearly.
 
Although having read the good book:

idfk if a goalkeeper touches the ball with the hands after: it has been deliberately kicked to the goalkeeper by a team-mate

I think there is some wriggle room here, I don't think he has handled it after it has been deliberately kicked to him, I would suggest that we are in a whole new phase of play.

Slightly playing devil's advocate - I can absolutely agree with & support the ref who gave the idfk, I'm with @Ciley Myrus : I don't think I'm giving this at my (low) level.
 
Although having read the good book:

idfk if a goalkeeper touches the ball with the hands after: it has been deliberately kicked to the goalkeeper by a team-mate

I think there is some wriggle room here, I don't think he has handled it after it has been deliberately kicked to him, I would suggest that we are in a whole new phase of play.

Slightly playing devil's advocate - I can absolutely agree with & support the ref who gave the idfk, I'm with @Ciley Myrus : I don't think I'm giving this at my (low) level.


careful!! I never said am not giving it ! It was an open ended question to raise awareness! I 99% would but I was just saying, I would weigh it up and go, hey, do I need too?
 
idfk if a goalkeeper touches the ball with the hands after: it has been deliberately kicked to the goalkeeper by a team-mate

I think there is some wriggle room here, I don't think he has handled it after it has been deliberately kicked to him, I would suggest that we are in a whole new phase of play.
When does this whole new phase of play begin - once the GK has touched it with their feet, or does the ball need to be kicked 5/10 yards away before it can be picked up?
 
I think there is some wriggle room here, I don't think he has handled it after it has been deliberately kicked to him, I would suggest that we are in a whole new phase of play.
So imagine the following scenario: defender passes the ball to his keeper from about 40 yards out, keeper who has stayed back near his goal line tries to kick it long but scuffs it, the ball only clears the penalty area by a couple of yards. Seeing a forward approaching, the keeper runs out of the area, kicks the ball back in and picks it up. How is that any different, in terms of the law? Would that not also be a "new phase in play"? However we know that that one would definitely be called.

Incidentally, there is no mention anywhere in the Laws of "phases of play."
 
No wiggle room in law. He "touches the ball with the hands after" "it has been deliberately kicked to the goalkeeper by a team-mate". How many touches he took or "phases of play" is not conditioned in law and is irrelevant . If you want a reason for not giving it, a better argument would be this law was not intended for such exceptional scenario but my counter argument is, it has to be given for consistency sake.

Here is another clear cut example. Ball is passed to the keeper who is standing just outside the top right corner of PA by a team mate. His team leads by a goal in 90th minute. He runs the ball taking several touches to the bottom left corner of the PA. 10 seconds and 50 yards (and several phases of play) away from where/when it was deliberately kicked to him. He picks the ball up as an opponent is closing in and now he can't be challenged. The law is clearly intended to stop this.
 
No wiggle room in law. He "touches the ball with the hands after" "it has been deliberately kicked to the goalkeeper by a team-mate". How many touches he took or "phases of play" is not conditioned in law and is irrelevant . If you want a reason for not giving it, a better argument would be this law was not intended for such exceptional scenario but my counter argument is, it has to be given for consistency sake.

Here is another clear cut example. Ball is passed to the keeper who is standing just outside the top right corner of PA by a team mate. His team leads by a goal in 90th minute. He runs the ball taking several touches to the bottom left corner of the PA. 10 seconds and 50 yards (and several phases of play) away from where/when it was deliberately kicked to him. He picks the ball up as an opponent is closing in and now he can't be challenged. The law is clearly intended to stop this.

Deliberately kicked m'laud!!! Deliberately kicked....... straight to him........ deliberately!!!! :cool::cool::cool::cool::cool::cool::cool: Case dismissed!!!!
 
No wiggle room in law. He "touches the ball with the hands after" "it has been deliberately kicked to the goalkeeper by a team-mate". How many touches he took or "phases of play" is not conditioned in law and is irrelevant . If you want a reason for not giving it, a better argument would be this law was not intended for such exceptional scenario but my counter argument is, it has to be given for consistency sake.

Here is another clear cut example. Ball is passed to the keeper who is standing just outside the top right corner of PA by a team mate. His team leads by a goal in 90th minute. He runs the ball taking several touches to the bottom left corner of the PA. 10 seconds and 50 yards (and several phases of play) away from where/when it was deliberately kicked to him. He picks the ball up as an opponent is closing in and now he can't be challenged. The law is clearly intended to stop this.

I would say in your example that that is still the same phase of play, at all times the keeper has had the ball under his control. In the video, once the keeper hoofs the ball out of the penalty area it has clearly left his control, entering a “new phase of play” so when he catches the ball again it has not been deliberately kicked to him by a team mate.

I could go with either decision- I think the ref in the video is technically correct, but I don’t think I would be giving that on my dog & duck Sunday league.
 
I would say in your example that that is still the same phase of play, at all times the keeper has had the ball under his control. In the video, once the keeper hoofs the ball out of the penalty area it has clearly left his control, entering a “new phase of play” so when he catches the ball again it has not been deliberately kicked to him by a team mate.

I could go with either decision- I think the ref in the video is technically correct, but I don’t think I would be giving that on my dog & duck Sunday league.



Its not the giving it thats the issue. Its that you just know its going to lead to the only goal of the game and you will end up wishing you had not bothered!
 
Its not the giving it thats the issue. Its that you just know its going to lead to the only goal of the game and you will end up wishing you had not bothered!
So, lets ignore the LOTG passage!! How many times does this actually happen, nearly zero id guess!!
 
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In the video, once the keeper hoofs the ball out of the penalty area it has clearly left his control, entering a “new phase of play”
OK, so can you give us a reference from the laws which explains just what "a new phase of play" is and why it makes any difference?

Also, in the example where the keeper kicks the ball out of the penalty area on the ground and it ends up something like twenty yards away from him, it has also left his control before he subsequently runs out of the penalty area and retrieves it. So would you not penalise in that scenario either?
 
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